Romans 4:1-25

Romans 4:1-25

3:9-20 No one will be declared righteous by works
3:21-31 The only way to be declared righteous is by faith in Jesus

Do we, then, nullify the law by this faith?
Not at all! Rather, we uphold the law.

Possible meanings of ‘we uphold the law’…
Meaning #1 We are obligated to the entirety of the OT Law
Meaning #2 We are obligated to the relevant OT Laws
Meaning #3 The Law itself speaks the same truth!

Example #1 Abraham
Was he justified by works? _____
Was he justified by faith? _____
Is faith merely a gift from God? _____
Is faith a work? _____

Example #2 David
Had David broken the law? _____
Did God forgive based on sacrifices? _____
Is this forgiveness only for Jews? _____

Example #3 Abraham
Was Abraham a Jew when Justified? _____
Is salvation available to all people of faith? _____
Can Gentiles be saved if they believe? _____
Can Jews be saved if they don’t have faith? _____

Does the Old Testament teach justification by faith?
The Law Genesis 15:6
The Prophets Habakuk 2:4
The Writings Psalm 32:1-2

Do you have an “against all hope” kind of faith?

NT Wright (a paraphrase based on his interpretation)

So... by what means are we part of God's covenant people? Is it by flesh that we become part of Abraham's family? Not as far as God is concerned! If Abraham had been justified by works of Torah, which belonged to ethic Israel, then he could boast about his blood. But the Scripture says that it was Abraham's belief that reckoned him righteous.

If the reckoning were based on ethnic markers (like possession of Torah), God would be obligated to count Abraham in. But covenant membership is not based on such things. God counts as members those who trust in Him even though they were part of universally wicked humanity. It is this faith that is counted as righteousness. The same was true for David, forgiveness was given to him not because he did some work or works, but because he trusted God's gift giving.

But is this covenant of faith only for ethnic Israel (the circumcised) or is it available to all? We've established that Abraham was counted a member by faith. And all this happened before he was circumcised. Circumcision was simply a seal on the covenant. He is, therefore, the father of all believers (whether circumcised or not), but he is not the father of unbelievers (even if they are circumcised).

Abraham wasn't a possessor of Torah when God promised that his offspring would inherit the world. He was a possessor of faith. Frankly if only Torah possessors are heirs, then nobody will get an inheritance since Torah brings wrath. Abraham didn't have Torah and, therefore, wasn't technically a transgressor of it (so, in that sense, he was a more ideal candidate for covenant).

So it is by grace through faith that we belong to the covenant and this makes the covenant available to all Abraham's children, not just the believers who also received Torah. The original promise was clear about the universal availability of the covenant when Abraham was told he'd be the father of many nations. And Abraham is our father in faith according to God who gives life to the dead (believing Jews, formerly dead in their transgressions) and creates life out of nothing (believing Gentiles, formerly not in covenant at all).

Abraham believed the promise against appearances and the promises came true. By faith he overlooked the fact that both he and his wife were as good as dead (in terms of reproduction), and believed God and gave Him glory. He believed that God was powerful enough to keep the promise. It was this belief that was counted as righteousness. And it is this same kind of belief which we have when we believe that Jesus rose from the dead. Just as Abraham was justified by believing in the promised child, we are justified by believing in the raised Son!